Ahmad in the New Testament?

“And when Jesus, son of Mary, said: O’ children of Israel, surely I am the messenger of Allah to you, verifying that which is before me of the Torah and giving the good news of a Messenger who will come after me, his name being AHMAD. But when he came to them with CLEAR ARGUMENTS, they said: This is clear enchantment.”(Qur’an 61:6)

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This text of the Qur’an has either been a means where Christians have tripped themselves up; or it has been a huge eye opener, one that has led many of them to embracing Islam.

So when dealing with Christians concerning this text you will find those who fall into one of two categories.

A) Those who are insincere and think this text of the Qur’an is some how a problem for Muslims.

B) Those whom are sincerely inquiring into the matter and willing to ponder over the justifications that are given.

The first very obvious point is that this text of the Qur’an no where said that Ahmad is written in the New Testament. The text states: “And when Jesus, son of Mary, said:

Often those Christians antagonistic to Islam read the above text of the Qur’an and think that a Muslim should reply: “Oh yes that is in Mathew chapter so and so verse so and so.”

This would be similar to the text of the New Testament:

“And he went and lived in a city called Nazareth, that what was spoken by the prophets might be fulfilled: “He shall be called a Nazarene.” (Matthew 2:23)

The reason why Christians have not been able to find that particular prophecy is because the above text said it was: ‘spoken’ by the prophets not necessarily that it was written by the prophets.

Did Jesus (as) ever write anything?

They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, “Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her.” Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground. (John 8:6-8)

The assumption is that Jesus (as) wrote what he spoke: “Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her.” Yet, we have no idea what he wrote the second time.

Not only this but may Allah (swt) reward brother Ammar in the comments section. He had reminded me that even the text that alleges Jesus (as) wrote something in the sands is a forgery.

This is taken from a Christian website:

https://www.gotquestions.org/John-7-53-8-11.html

The story is a clear forgery. Wasn’t found in the 4th century manuscripts.

Since Jesus (as) didn’t really write anything it makes sense we wouldn’t find anything written concerning “Ahmad” .  However, the above text does state that Jesus (as) said:

“Oh children of Israel, surely I am the messenger of Allah to you, verifying that which is before me of the Torah and giving the good news of a Messenger who will come after me, his name being Ahmad.”

This is more than sufficient for those who believe. Allah (swt) said that Jesus (as) said it and that is enough for the Muslims. Though, for those Christians who are sincere we will endeavor to give them some things to reflect over.

Does the New Testament teach that Jesus (as) is the last Prophet? 

The answer to that is no!

Jesus (as) never claimed to be the last prophet. That admission in and of itself already is an argument in favour of our proposition. It does not necessarily prove it; however it is a point in favour of our propositon.

Think about this. When other Christian denominations get into debates and discussions with Mormons (The Church of Jesus Christ of the Latter Day Saints) they never shut down the Mormons with saying: “Well, Joseph Smith can’t be a Prophet because Jesus said there would be no more.” If that were so the matter would be an open and shut case.

Now there were in the church at Antioch prophets and teachers, Barnabas, Simeon who was called Niger, Lucius of Cyrene, Manaen a lifelong friend of Herod the tetrarch, and Saul. (Acts 13:1)

And Judas and Silas, who were themselves prophets, encouraged and strengthened the brothers with many words.” (Acts 15:32)

“And as we tarried there many days, there came down from Judaea a certain prophet, named Agabus.” (Acts 21:10)

What has passed is more than sufficient to answer the objections of those who attack the Qur’an 61:6. We can see that the Qur’an says that it was something that Jesus (as) spoke and it doesn’t say it was written. We can also see that the New Testament does not have a definite statement about Jesus (as) being the last prophet. 

However, for those Christians who like to reflect we will present more information to reflect upon.

The Prophecy of the Comforter/Advocate.

Now notice something about this text in John 14:26. Notice that the identity of The Comforter seems to be a matter of ambiguity. This ambiguity is followed up by the clarification: ‘Which is the Holy Ghost.’

Now to be clear of the Greek manuscripts that we currently know about John 14:26 is read as: “The Comforter, Which is the Holy Ghost.” I am saying this in the interest of transparency and not to over state the case.

What I am going to present is justification to show that this is a scribal insertion. As you can read the text on the left is quite intelligible without the addition ‘which is the Holy Ghost‘.

Some Early Church Fathers saw the possibility of the Paraclete being a reference to a human being.

The Montanists professed to be prophets and to speak under divine inspiration. Their founder, Montanus, claimed to be the Paraclete, the “Comforter,” or Helper, of John, chapter 14. Tertullian became a Montanist before he died.”

Source: (Edgar J Goodspeed How Came The Bible pg. 67.)

Comment: Tertullian and Monatanus were early church fathers who played a crucial role in the development of the New Testament text Christians have today. So if such learned men saw the possibility of the Paraclete referring to a human being then who are we to say?

“Christian tradition has identified this figure (Paraclete) as the Holy Spirit, but scholars like Spitta, Delafosse, Sasse, Bultmann, and Betz have doubted whether this identification is true to the original picture and have suggested that the Paraclete was once an independent salvific figure, later confused with the Holy Spirit.”

Source: (The Anchor Bible, 1970, Volume 29A, p.1135)

“The Paraclete is a parallel figure to Jesus himself; and this conclusion is confirmed in the fact that the title is suitable for both. It is clear from 14:16 that the source thought there were sendings of two Paracletes, Jesus and his successor, the one following the other”

Source: (The Gospel of John a Commentary, Rudolf Bultmann, p. 567)

In fact the word Paraclete is used in the New Testament to refer to a human being

“My little children, these things write I unto you, that you sin not and if any man sin, we have an advocate (Parakleton) Παράκλητον with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous) (1st John 2:1)

Note: The first time the word Paraclete is used is in reference to a man, Jesus.

Jesus (as) mentions that the Paraklete will be like him -and not unlike him.

“If you love me, keep my commandments, and I will pray for the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter (allon Parakleton) ἄλλον Παράκλητον, that HE may abide with you forever.” (John 14:15-16)

‘Another‘- the Greek word Allon means another of the same kind.

allon Parakleton-In addition to himself another messenger, not heteros, another of a different kind!

If Jesus (as) meant a comforter of a different kind he would have used the Greek word heteron meaning-another of a different kind. The Greek word heteron is where we get the word heterosexual.

An example of the Greek word heteros being used.

“I marvel that you are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ another (heteron) ἕτερον gospel.” (Galatians 1:6-9)

(Here the Greek word another (heteron) is another of a different kind.)

A derivative of the word Paraclete is also used to reference a human being.

“Joseph, a Levite from Cyprus, whom the apostles called Barnabas (which is translated as “son of encouragement (parakleseos)” (Acts 4:36)

This is such a very curious text that is full of obfuscation. So we have an individual named Joseph, which is being called ‘Barnabas’ by the apostles. Which in turn is being translated as: The son of encouragement [Parakleseos]

Another reason why (The Comforter, Which is the Holy Ghost) is a scribal insertion.

Jesus (as) is reported to make the following claim:

“Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, The Comforter (Parakletos)Παράκλητος will not come to you; but if I depart, I will send HIM unto you.” (John 16:7)

So Jesus has to depart in order for this Paraklete to come. Based upon this admission the Paraklete cannot be not the Holy Ghost!

The reason why the Paraklete cannot be the Holy Ghost is because Jesus (as) was around when he was around. Ample text make this abundantly clear.

“And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him.” (Luke 3:23)

(Jesus didn’t have to go anywhere!)

“And Jesus being full of the Holy Ghost returned from Jordan, and was led by the Spirit into the wilderness.” (Luke 4:1)

(Again Jesus and Holy Ghost are present together.)

“Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. As the Father sent me, So I send you.” And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, Receive the Holy Ghost.” (John 20:21-22)

So all these text prove that this Paraklete cannot by the Holy Ghost as Jesus (as) has been around when the Paraklete has been around. 

However, Jesus (as) mentions that he needs to go in order to come. This is also an indirect proof that Jesus (as) is dead and not like some have imagined that he is alive in the heavens.

John 16:12-13 Does this refer to a Prophet to come or the Holy Ghost?

“I have many things to say unto you, but you cannot bear them now. Howbeit when HE, the Spirit (Pneuma)Πνεῦμα of truth comes HE will guide you into all truth: (HOW?) For HE shall not speak of HIMSELF; But whatsoever HE shall hear (from God) that shall HE speak: and HE will show you things to come.” (John 16:12-13)

So a Christian may object that this can be a reference to a Prophet because the word spirit is clearly used. However, that is because it is being used as a metonymy for a Prophet. It has been used in the following verse in such a way:

“Beloved believe not every SPIRIT (pneumati) πνεύματι , but try the SPIRITS (pneumata) πνεύματα whether they are of God: Because many false PROPHETS are gone out into the world. Hereby know you the SPIRIT of God: Every SPIRIT that confessed that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is of God:” (1 John 4:1-6)

So you can see that Spirits/Prophets are used interchangeably. So that objection is answered.

Jesus (as) constantly refers to the Paraclete as ‘He’ and not ‘It’.

When one goes back and looks at all the text Jesus (as) consistently used the masculine pronoun ‘He’, however, Spirit in Greek is used in the neuter gender which could be he, she or simply it.

look at various translations of John 1:32

Notice that the King James version translates the neutral gender as ‘it’ where as in the New King James version they switch it to ‘He’. The other versions also make it masculine gender as ‘He’, or ‘himself’. The New International Version is the best translation remaining non committal in the gender specification.

“Likewise the Spirit also keeps our infirmities: For we know not what we should pray for as we ought: But the Spirit itself (auto) αὐτὸ itself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.” (Romans 8:26)

The above passages show the holy ghost as neuter gender which means passages can be translate the Holy Ghost as She, He, It.  Where as it is clear that the Paraklete is only referenced as ‘He’. 

Recall the point about Jesus (as) calling the Paraklete as (allon Parakleton) ἄλλον Παράκλητον

Another of the same kind, same genus. The Holy Ghost can be her, him, or it. Jesus (as) is not reference as ‘her’ or it’.

Let us repost the text and notice something else that is quite striking.

“I have many things to say unto you, but you cannot bear them now. Howbeit when HE, the Spirit (Pneuma)Πνεῦμα of truth comes HE will guide you into all truth: (HOW?) For HE shall not speak of HIMSELF; But whatsoever HE shall hear (akousei) ἀκούσει that shall HE speak (lalesei) λαλήσει and HE will show you things to come.” (John 16:12-13)

A) Shall not speak of Himself.

B) Whatso ever He shall here is what he will speak.

This cannot be a reference to the Holy Ghost at all. 

Recall the above text:

” But the Spirit itself (auto) αὐτὸ itself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.” (Romans 8:26)

HEAR– The Greek verb (akousei) means to perceive audible sounds.

SPEAK-The Greek verb ; (lalesei) means to speak, to emit sounds.

So this HE has to be able to hear audibly and tell verbally.

The two Greek words Akousei and Lalesei refer to a concrete being with speech organs.

Recall the prophecy of Deut 18:18,

“and I will put my words in his mouth”

The Qur’an is the created speech of Allah and and the Blessed Prophet (saw) is the mouthpiece of this created speech.

“By the star when it goes down your companion is neither astray nor being misled, nor does he say of his own desire. It is no less than an inspiration sent down to him: He was taught by one mighty in power.” (Qur’an 53:1-5)

Another point is if we reflect upon the above text it presents problems for Christian theology.

“For HE shall not speak of HIMSELF; But whatsoever HE shall hear (akousei) ἀκούσει that shall HE speak (lalesei) λαλήσει and HE will show you things to come.”

How would the speech of the Holy Ghost be different than the speech of the Father in essence?

Why would the Holy Ghost need to be told what to say when his knowledge is the same as the knowledge of the father in essence?

Remember Christians cannot use the fully deity/full man argument like they can for Jesus (as). The Holy Ghost does not have two natures.

It seems rather strange that the other Gospel writers have no mention about this coming Paraklete. Lastly, their remains some curiosity in the retention of the word Paraclete in the Hebrew and Aramaic translations.

The Qur’an 61:6 and the use of a type of literary device to that would be akin to an enthymeme.

“And when Jesus, son of Mary, said: O’ children of Israel, surely I am the messenger of Allah to you, verifying that which is before me of the Torah and giving the good news of a Messenger who will come after me, his name being AHMAD.” (Qur’an 61:6)

Do you ever wonder why the verse does not say: ”Giving the good news of a Messenger who will come after me, his name being MUHAMMED?”

Muhammed comes from the triconsonantal Semitic root H-M-D.

The spelling of the word is different but the meaning is the same.

1. Jesus (as) did not speak Arabic and so what ever he did say would be in Hebrew or Aramaic and not Greek nor Arabic.
2. What ever prophecy Jesus (as) made would either be ‘Ahmad’ or the equivalent of it’s meaning.
3. Allah (swt) by using the word ‘Ahmad’ instead of the word ‘Muhammed’ has given us a type of enthymeme by which those interested can investigate the matter. That is to say it is possible that the scribes

“But on account of their breaking their covenant We cursed them and made their hearts hard; they altered the words from their places (yuharifuna l-kaima ‘an mawadi’ihi) and they neglected a portion of what they were reminded of; and you shall always discover treachery in them excepting a few of them; so pardon them and turn away; surely Allah loves those who do good (to others).” (Qur’an 5:13)

What may have been the word in Hebrew or Aramaic?

In the above text we can see the word transliterated as: Mahamaddim. They have translated the word as description ‘lovely.

In the Orthodox Jewish Bible they have put the transliterated word as: Machamaddim and have translated it as: (altogether desirable)

Source for the the text below: (https://www.biblestudytools.com/ojb/shir-hashirim/5.html)

Again a different translation this time we get: “wholly desirable” and we can see that the is a masculine noun pronounced as Machmad. The word origin for this is chamad.

By the way do yourself a favour and copy those Hebrew words and put them in Google translate and listen to how they sound.

Notice that the word in Hebrew is to be desired, delighted in, to covet, to be pleased with, and than look at the Arabic equivalent that they give! With its meaning to praise to eulogize.

Look at the Arabic word that they give.

May Allah (swt) open the eyes and hearts of those who are sincere.

For further reading on topics in relation to Christianity you may want to read the following:

Genesis chapter 3 separates Islam and Christianity.

The Religion that existed before Christianity and Judaism.

Adoptionist Theology: How did Jesus Become The Son of God?

The degenerate and disgraced Christians who attacked Islam and Muslims.